Paul J Gans wrote: > Burkhard <b.scha...@ed.ac.uk> wrote: >> r norman wrote: >>> On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 10:19:25 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk >>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote:
>>>> On Nov 6, 11:03?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>> On Fri, 6 Nov 2009 19:26:23 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk
>>>>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote: >>>>>> On Nov 6, 4:59?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>>> <snip> >>>>>>> I have been to St. Catherine's monastery in the Sinai, the supposed >>>>>>> site of the burning bus. ?<snip> >>>>>> Is the burning bus some modern miracle? >>>>> If you grow up learning Cockney English, you tend to drop your >>>>> haitches! >>>> I did, and I don't. >>> I didn't and, by the rules of logic, if the premise is false then any >>> conclusion whatsoever is possible.
>>> As an aside, that principle of logic is the foundation for all the >>> creationist arguments.
>> But you need more than merely false premises, you need logically >> inconsistent ones.
> Not really. The problem is compounded by many creationists by > taking the Bible literally in every respect.
No, I meant you need logically inconsistent statements for the principle of explosion "x falso quodlibet" that r norman evoked to apply.
From "P and not P" follows indeed in classical logic every proposition. But the "falso" here is a logical, not an empirical falso
> That's the error. The Catholics gave this up about 1700 years ago. > Mostly because their religious leaders were smarter than the > average creationist and *knew* that the Bible could not be taken > literally but instead needed to be carefully interpreted. Jews > had come to the same idea about the same time. Hence the auxilliary > books such as the Talmud used by Jews to help understand the Bible.
> The major reason why the Catholic Church in the Middle Ages did > NOT want the laity reading the bible for themselves was exactly > the fear that some in the laity would misunderstand it.
On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 16:44:28 -0800 (PST), Harvest Dancer
<harvestdan...@hotmail.com> wrote: > On Nov 4, 1:54 am, All-seeing-I <ap...@email.com> wrote: > > Jacob-El > Any relation to Kal-El and Jor-El?
Before there was Clark Kent, there was Maui.
-- http://desertphile.org Desertphile's Desert Soliloquy. WARNING: view with plenty of water "Why aren't resurrections from the dead noteworthy?" -- Jim Rutz
William Morse <wdNOSPAMMo...@verizon.net> wrote: >r norman wrote: >> On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 18:40:26 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans <g...@panix.com> >> wrote:
>>> r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>> On Fri, 06 Nov 2009 17:50:11 -0700, Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote: >>>>> On Fri, 06 Nov 2009 16:59:30 -0500, r norman >>>>> <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote:
>>>>>> On Fri, 06 Nov 2009 14:39:45 -0700, Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote:
>>>>>>> On Fri, 06 Nov 2009 12:34:01 -0500, "Steven L." >>>>>>> <sdlit...@earthlink.net> wrote:
>>>>>>>> Hatunen wrote:
>>>>>>>>> In the past, particularly in the 19th century, a great many >>>>>>>>> devout churchmen traveled to the Sinai to follow the path of the >>>>>>>>> Exodus and been chagrined to realize there is simply no way the >>>>>>>>> Sinai could have supported a group of wanderers that large, >>>>>>>> Isn't that why the Biblical account mentions Manna, a magical food that >>>>>>>> appeared to nourish the Hebrews? >>>>>>> Calculate how much would be required for upwards of a million >>>>>>> people for forty years. >>>>>> Once you buy into the miracle thing, then nothing can ever be a >>>>>> problem. Adam's creation, Moses' manna, Noah's flood, Joshua's sun >>>>>> stopping are all explained in a poof. The only problem comes when >>>>>> people are so silly as to try to find naturalistic explanations for >>>>>> all of these. Sap exudations or some weird insect process just >>>>>> doesn't cut it for the manna. >>>>> I don't beleive the Biblical narration includes all the water >>>>> required.
>>>> It also doesn't mention the toilet facilities. But narratives seldom >>>> do. Once again, it doen't make the slightest difference -- once you >>>> have miracles working for you then anything is possible.
>>> It is touching to realize that folks, even more or less educated >>> folks, take ancient numbers as gospel. The Bible was not written >>> as a history book. It was written to extol the glories of God. >>> it is loaded with metaphoe and analogy. And it is loaded with >>> numbers.
>>> We know about the numbers because the ancient usage persisted >>> down to the late Middle Ages. The Bible says 600,000, sure. >>> Who counted them?
>>> Numbers such as five or ten doubtless mean five or ten. Numbers >>> such as "dozens" mean "a small group". Numbers in the hundreds >>> mean "a larger group". Numbers in the low thousands mean basically >>> "the entire army" or, for civilians "the entire group". Numbers >>> beyond that mean the same as today's "ginormous" or "humungous".
>>> This same numerical problem afflicts medieval manuscripts, >>> especially those written by clerics.
>>> The basic point is not that the ancients and the medievals >>> were innumerate, they weren't. But large numbers did not mean >>> the same things to them that they do to us. It is like the >>> old canard about the "primative" tribe that counted "1, 2, many" >>> which actually means 1, 2, or a large number not worth counting.
>>> As for the rest of it, I will only say that every group likes >>> foundation myths. Look at George Washington and the cherry tree >>> as an example. Or Good Ol' George standing up in a small boat >>> crossing the Delaware. Try it, but wear a lifejacket when you >>> do.
>>> My favorite of that sort is the idea that the US was founded as >>> a "Christian Nation".
>>> The Bible must be read in the same way.
>> In ancient Hebrew and Aramaic or whatever else the original texts may >> have been writter in, numbers and letters use the same symbols. That >> is, words have numerical value and numbers can be interpreted as >> words. Omitting all the vowels also introduces an enormous amount of >> ambiguity in the reading. So one interpretation is that the Torah has >> two very different meanings. One is the usual reading of words that >> tell fanciful stories. A second interpretation of the same symbols is >> the true, "hidden" meaning that only the adept can decipher. A modern >> version of this notion is the basis for the "Bible Code". That is the >> reason that copies of the Torah must be absolutely letter perfect -- >> any deviation will destroy the hidden meaning even if the superficial >> meaning remains intact. That is also why translations of the >> original can not be considered authentic in any way; only the >> superficial meaning is translation and even that translation is >> necessarily very imperfect.
>> This explains the long lists of names and the very specific use of >> numbers in the original text. They were necessary in order to present >> the hidden text. >Which reminds of a joke you may have already heard: >There are two monks sitting in a monastery. One says to the other "These >documents we're always hand-copying...they've always been hand-copied, >right?" >"Well, yes...of course," says the other monk. >"So, what if, in the past 2,000 years," said the first monk, "Somebody >misspelled something or got a word wrong, and we've been copying that >mistake ever since?" >"well, that's a good question," says the second monk, "That could really >be a problem. Wait a minute, I know we have the original documents >somewhere in the basement. Tell you what--stay here and I'll go see if I >can find them." >So the second monk goes down into the basement. After waiting several >hours, the first monk decides to go look for him. He goes down there, >and sure enough, he sees the other monk. But he's crying. >"Why are you crying?" he asks. >"It says CELEBRATE."
Yup.
Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to their being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered a large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians saw no value in pagan documents.
Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have copies from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which manuscript has the error?
Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four families, no two of which will agree on some points.
Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake things up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
> Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to their > being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered a > large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians saw > no value in pagan documents.
> Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have copies > from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which manuscript has > the error?
> Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have > multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into > families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the > propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four > families, no two of which will agree on some points.
> Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, > often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose > in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. > The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several > reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
I thought that the Testimonium Flavianum, the section that now says "Jesus was The Christ", is generally acknowledged to be a later Christian embellishment of a genuine mention of Jesus. I have never heard that the other mention of Jesus, in the account of the death of James, is an interpolation. OK, maybe I've heard that from some extreme Jesus-myther, but never from any source that I could regard as impartial. Are you sure you're describing a consensus? Can you point me to a source?
> History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the > same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake things > up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
r norman wrote: > On Wed, 04 Nov 2009 08:53:23 -0500, Augray <aug...@sympatico.ca> > wrote:
>> On Wed, 4 Nov 2009 01:54:46 -0800 (PST), All-seeing-I
> <snip to preserve my sanity, but see synopsis below>
> All-seeing-I wrote a long post quoting from his precious "ancient > documents" purporting to disclose evidentiary proof of the Exodus.
> Augray posted a thoughtful point-by-point analysis showing that this > is not at all evidentiary proof of the Exodus. Mike Dworetsky and > wf3h also responded similarly.
> I would add that it is quite possible, very likely even, that the > story of the Exodus and many other tales from Genesis and other > biblical books may be based in part on fact so that there is very > likely to be good archeological evidence that agrees in part with some > aspects of the Bible. This relates to the non-supernatural parts of > the biblical narrative, the parts involving miraculous divine > intervention are quite another story.
> There is some considerable doubt as to whether the Hebrews or > Israelites ever were a completely nomadic people as described in the > Bible. All historical accounts we know were of well citified peoples > of course with agricultural and animal husbandry accompaniments. > Still, all peoples derived originally from hunter gatherers or > pastoral types in the early days of the development of civilization > and cities. Whether or not an Abrahamic-type of nomad was part of the > actual Hebrew culture, such peoples really did exist and tales of > their adventures no doubt made it into the popular culture and myth of > the tiime. There were, indeed, wanderings into Eqypt and there were, > indeed, slaves, and no doubt there were quite probably individual > small groups of slaves who revolted and fled and wandered around > aimlessly before forming a group strong enough to starting off to > conquer somebody else's land to settle in.
> When the early Hebrews sat down to manufacture a cultural history to > establish a separate national identity, there must have been a lot of > lore passed down orally over the centuries to choose from. Some of it > might well have been originally based on historical fact. So all those > ancient documents might well contain accounts from other people of > those same original historical facts.
> The same arguments apply to notions like "The Flood", a well > hashed-over topic here. Certainly there were small-f floods and even > really massive Floods. There is some controversy about the > possibility of a really Huge Flood associated with the Black Sea. So > flood tales about the "Really Big One" should not be absent from > ancient lore and are found in Ancient Documents. That does not prove > that the Noachic Flood as described in Genesis actually happened. In > the same vein, evidence of Hebrews in Egypt cannot be used to prove > that Moses and the Exodus actually happened. Nor can evidence of > revolutionary and radical religious reformers being crucified in > Jerusalem some 2000 years ago be used to prove that Jesus as Son of > God and Messiahn really existed.
We know that rainfall totals are higher for smaller areas and shorter durations. Cherrapunji, India, has apparently recorded a total of 366 inches of rain in one month. One can see that an event like that would be remembered for a long time, and would be a good candidate for a legendary account like that of Noah.
That being said, looking at long duration events over large areas, we can make extrapolations from recorded events and state that the odds of the Noachic Flood are similar to the odds of a rich man entering the kingdom of God.
On Mon, 9 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans
<g...@panix.com> wrote: >Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due >to their being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally >ordered a large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point >the Christians saw no value in pagan documents.
>Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have >copies from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which >manuscript has the error?
Once in a book I found a reference to a place in the KJV OT where the copyist had obviously included some proofreader's comments. I looked it up and it sure convinced me that it happened. I wrote the book, chapter and verse in the frontispiece of the Bible, but somewhere along the way in the last fifty years the Bible has left my possession. IIRC, it was in Judges.
I'd love to find it again. I can't recall the book I read about it in: Robert Ingersoll comes to mind. But I don't feel like reading the Bible just to find the passage.
-- ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
> Paul J Gans wrote: >> Burkhard <b.scha...@ed.ac.uk> wrote: >>> r norman wrote: >>>> On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 10:19:25 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk >>>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote:
>>>>> On Nov 6, 11:03?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>>> On Fri, 6 Nov 2009 19:26:23 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk
>>>>>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote: >>>>>>> On Nov 6, 4:59?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>>>> <snip> >>>>>>>> I have been to St. Catherine's monastery in the Sinai, the supposed >>>>>>>> site of the burning bus. ?<snip> >>>>>>> Is the burning bus some modern miracle? >>>>>> If you grow up learning Cockney English, you tend to drop your >>>>>> haitches! >>>>> I did, and I don't. >>>> I didn't and, by the rules of logic, if the premise is false then any >>>> conclusion whatsoever is possible.
>>>> As an aside, that principle of logic is the foundation for all the >>>> creationist arguments.
>>> But you need more than merely false premises, you need logically >>> inconsistent ones.
>> Not really. The problem is compounded by many creationists by >> taking the Bible literally in every respect.
> No, I meant you need logically inconsistent statements for the principle > of explosion "x falso quodlibet" that r norman evoked to apply.
> From "P and not P" follows indeed in classical logic every proposition. > But the "falso" here is a logical, not an empirical falso
>> That's the error. The Catholics gave this up about 1700 years ago. >> Mostly because their religious leaders were smarter than the average >> creationist and *knew* that the Bible could not be taken >> literally but instead needed to be carefully interpreted. Jews >> had come to the same idea about the same time. Hence the auxilliary >> books such as the Talmud used by Jews to help understand the Bible.
>> The major reason why the Catholic Church in the Middle Ages did >> NOT want the laity reading the bible for themselves was exactly >> the fear that some in the laity would misunderstand it.
******* Or the greater fear that the laity WOULD understand it - and recognize that the Catholic Church was nothing more than a fanatical cult!
John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: >On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote: ><snip>
>> Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to their >> being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered a >> large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians saw >> no value in pagan documents.
>> Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have copies >> from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which manuscript has >> the error?
>> Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have >> multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into >> families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the >> propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four >> families, no two of which will agree on some points.
>> Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, >> often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose >> in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. >> The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several >> reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
> I thought that the Testimonium Flavianum, the section that now says >"Jesus was The Christ", is generally acknowledged to be a later >Christian embellishment of a genuine mention of Jesus. I have never >heard that the other mention of Jesus, in the account of the death >of James, is an interpolation. OK, maybe I've heard that from some >extreme Jesus-myther, but never from any source that I could regard >as impartial. Are you sure you're describing a consensus? Can you >point me to a source? >> History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the >> same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake things >> up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
The problem with the death of James is primarily that of the first section. Given that the first section is a forgery, or, more likely, contains forged elements, why should they be the only forged elements?
The words in dispute in the second selection are the last part of "the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ". The argument is simple. Why would Josephus call this Jesus the "annointed one" which is the primary meaning of "Christ", without explanation or further reference? This is serious for a major Roman supporter such as Josephus. Nowhere does he explain the title "Christ".
Even the first part is in dispute because Jesus, though a popular Jewish name (Yeshua or Joshua) is nowhere explained. James is, but only in passing.
Put more simply the entire passage is about Ananus. If an anointed one is to be part of this, it needs explaination.
Actually, if the entire disputed passage is replaced by "a man" it reads just fine.
"...he assembled the sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them a man,whose name was James, and some others; and when he had formed an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them to be stoned..."
The passage as given makes the secondary subject, James, a tertiary subject by subjugating his to an otherwise unexplained Jesus, who was called Christ. Surely this Christ calls out for more explication, but it is not forthcoming.
PepsiFr...@teranews.com <bobsyoung...@yahoo.com> wrote: >"Burkhard" <b.scha...@ed.ac.uk> wrote in message >news:hd65me$j4u$1@news.albasani.net... >> Paul J Gans wrote: >>> Burkhard <b.scha...@ed.ac.uk> wrote: >>>> r norman wrote: >>>>> On Sat, 7 Nov 2009 10:19:25 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk >>>>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote:
>>>>>> On Nov 6, 11:03?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>>>> On Fri, 6 Nov 2009 19:26:23 -0800 (PST), Tim Norfolk
>>>>>>> <timsn...@aol.com> wrote: >>>>>>>> On Nov 6, 4:59?pm, r norman <r_s_nor...@comcast.net> wrote: >>>>>>>> <snip> >>>>>>>>> I have been to St. Catherine's monastery in the Sinai, the supposed >>>>>>>>> site of the burning bus. ?<snip> >>>>>>>> Is the burning bus some modern miracle? >>>>>>> If you grow up learning Cockney English, you tend to drop your >>>>>>> haitches! >>>>>> I did, and I don't. >>>>> I didn't and, by the rules of logic, if the premise is false then any >>>>> conclusion whatsoever is possible.
>>>>> As an aside, that principle of logic is the foundation for all the >>>>> creationist arguments.
>>>> But you need more than merely false premises, you need logically >>>> inconsistent ones.
>>> Not really. The problem is compounded by many creationists by >>> taking the Bible literally in every respect.
>> No, I meant you need logically inconsistent statements for the principle >> of explosion "x falso quodlibet" that r norman evoked to apply.
>> From "P and not P" follows indeed in classical logic every proposition. >> But the "falso" here is a logical, not an empirical falso
>>> That's the error. The Catholics gave this up about 1700 years ago. >>> Mostly because their religious leaders were smarter than the average >>> creationist and *knew* that the Bible could not be taken >>> literally but instead needed to be carefully interpreted. Jews >>> had come to the same idea about the same time. Hence the auxilliary >>> books such as the Talmud used by Jews to help understand the Bible.
>>> The major reason why the Catholic Church in the Middle Ages did >>> NOT want the laity reading the bible for themselves was exactly >>> the fear that some in the laity would misunderstand it. >******* Or the greater fear that the laity WOULD understand it - and >recognize that the Catholic Church was nothing more than a fanatical cult!
Not really. There were plenty of bibles around and translations into the vernacular happened with some regularity. And the schools were turning out literate people right and left.
There were plenty of bad apples in the Church orchard, but there were also plenty of serious, sincere, people as well. A simple cult does not survive for 2000 years.
On Mon, 9 Nov 2009 17:40:40 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans
<g...@panix.com> wrote: >Not really. There were plenty of bibles around and translations >into the vernacular happened with some regularity. And the schools >were turning out literate people right and left.
But up until the Reformation such Bibles were either quashed or restricted to churh use.
-- ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
<g...@panix.com> wrote: >John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: >>On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote:
>><snip>
>>> Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to their >>> being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered a >>> large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians saw >>> no value in pagan documents.
>>> Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have copies >>> from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which manuscript has >>> the error?
>>> Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have >>> multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into >>> families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the >>> propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four >>> families, no two of which will agree on some points.
>>> Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, >>> often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose >>> in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. >>> The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several >>> reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
>> I thought that the Testimonium Flavianum, the section that now says >>"Jesus was The Christ", is generally acknowledged to be a later >>Christian embellishment of a genuine mention of Jesus. I have never >>heard that the other mention of Jesus, in the account of the death >>of James, is an interpolation. OK, maybe I've heard that from some >>extreme Jesus-myther, but never from any source that I could regard >>as impartial. Are you sure you're describing a consensus? Can you >>point me to a source?
>>> History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the >>> same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake things >>> up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
>The problem with the death of James is primarily that of the first >section. Given that the first section is a forgery, or, more likely, >contains forged elements, why should they be the only forged elements?
>The words in dispute in the second selection are the last part of >"the brother of Jesus, who was called Christ". The argument is >simple. Why would Josephus call this Jesus the "annointed one" >which is the primary meaning of "Christ", without explanation or >further reference? This is serious for a major Roman supporter such >as Josephus. Nowhere does he explain the title "Christ".
In all fairness, you have to remember that Josephus wrote in either Greek or latin (I don't know which) for an educated audience who would have understood the meaning of "christus" or whatever word he actually used. To his readers it whould have read as "the brother of Jesus, who was called the annointed one" and no defintiobn would have been required.
Using that phraseology it doesn't seem to me that Josephus would have believed him to actually be THE annointed one.
-- ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 17:33:13 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote: > John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: >>On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote:
>><snip>
>>> Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to >>> their being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered >>> a large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians >>> saw no value in pagan documents.
>>> Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have >>> copies from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which >>> manuscript has the error?
>>> Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have >>> multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into >>> families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the >>> propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four >>> families, no two of which will agree on some points.
>>> Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, >>> often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose >>> in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. >>> The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several >>> reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
>> I thought that the Testimonium Flavianum, the section that now says >>"Jesus was The Christ", is generally acknowledged to be a later >>Christian embellishment of a genuine mention of Jesus. I have never >>heard that the other mention of Jesus, in the account of the death of >>James, is an interpolation. OK, maybe I've heard that from some extreme >>Jesus-myther, but never from any source that I could regard as >>impartial. Are you sure you're describing a consensus? Can you point me >>to a source?
>>> History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the >>> same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake >>> things up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
> The problem with the death of James is primarily that of the first > section. Given that the first section is a forgery, or, more likely, > contains forged elements, why should they be the only forged elements?
> The words in dispute in the second selection are the last part of "the > brother of Jesus, who was called Christ". The argument is simple. Why > would Josephus call this Jesus the "annointed one" which is the primary > meaning of "Christ", without explanation or further reference? This is > serious for a major Roman supporter such as Josephus. Nowhere does he > explain the title "Christ".
> Even the first part is in dispute because Jesus, though a popular Jewish > name (Yeshua or Joshua) is nowhere explained. James is, but only in > passing.
> Put more simply the entire passage is about Ananus. If an anointed one > is to be part of this, it needs explaination.
> Actually, if the entire disputed passage is replaced by "a man" it reads > just fine.
> "...he assembled the sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them > a man,whose name was James, and some others; and when he had formed > an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them > to be stoned..."
> The passage as given makes the secondary subject, James, a tertiary > subject by subjugating his to an otherwise unexplained Jesus, who was > called Christ. Surely this Christ calls out for more explication, but > it is not forthcoming.
Commentary on Matthew 10.17 : "...Flavius Josephus, who wrote the 'Antiquities of the Jews' in twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things which they had dared to do against James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ."
Contra Celsum 1.47 : "... says nevertheless-being, although against his will, not far from the truth-that these disasters happened to the Jews as a punishment for the death of James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus called Christ."
"Jesus <who is> called Christ" looks to me like an indirect quotation of Josephus' language, rather than Origen's own description of Jesus.
The passage is about the crimes of Ananus. I don't see why "called Christ" in this context calls for a digression into the story of Jesus. If Wells and Doherty are the only people advancing this argument, it doesn't deserve to be called a consensus of scholarship on the question.
<hatu...@cox.net> wrote: > On Mon, 9 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans > <g...@panix.com> wrote:
> >Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due > >to their being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally > >ordered a large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point > >the Christians saw no value in pagan documents.
> >Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have > >copies from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which > >manuscript has the error?
> Once in a book I found a reference to a place in the KJV OT where > the copyist had obviously included some proofreader's comments. I > looked it up and it sure convinced me that it happened. I wrote > the book, chapter and verse in the frontispiece of the Bible, but > somewhere along the way in the last fifty years the Bible has > left my possession. IIRC, it was in Judges.
> I'd love to find it again. I can't recall the book I read about > it in: Robert Ingersoll comes to mind. But I don't feel like > reading the Bible just to find the passage.
Possibly: "Printers Bible" bef. 1702: Psalm 119:161 reads "Printers have persecuted me without cause." The first word was changed, possibly by a disgruntled typesetter, from "Princes".
or
"To-remain Bible" 1805: In Galatians 4:29 a proof-reader had written in "to remain" in the margin, as an answer to whether a comma should be deleted. The note inadvertently became part of the text, making the edition read "But as then he that was born after the flesh persecuted him that was born after the Spirit to remain, even so it is now."
But probably not this:
Buggre Alle This Bible: (Ezekiel 48:5) "Buggre Alle this for a Larke. I amme sick to mye Hart of typesettinge. Master Biltonn is no Gentlemann, and Master Scagges noe more than a tighte fisted Southwarke Knobbesticke. I telle you, onne a daye laike this Ennyone with half an oz. of Sense shoulde bee oute in the Sunneshain, ane nott Stucke here alle the livelong daie inn this mowldey olde By-Our-Lady Workeshoppe. @*?@;!*
(Genesis verses 3:2527) 25. And the Lord spake unto the Angel that guarded the eastern gate, saying Where is the flaming sword which was given unto thee? 26. And the Angel said, I had it here only a moment ago, I must have put it down some where, forget my own head next. 27. And the Lord did not ask him again.
Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote: >On Mon, 9 Nov 2009 17:40:40 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans ><g...@panix.com> wrote: >>Not really. There were plenty of bibles around and translations >>into the vernacular happened with some regularity. And the schools >>were turning out literate people right and left. >But up until the Reformation such Bibles were either quashed or >restricted to churh use.
To some extent. However, don't discount the number of students who went through church schools and who would have had an opportunity to read the Bible.
Most major noble families had private chapels complete with priest and bible and other texts. Knowlege of Latin was not completely restricted to the clergy and literacy was more widespread than is commonly thought.
John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: >On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 17:33:13 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote: >> John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: >>>On Mon, 09 Nov 2009 02:22:38 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote:
>>><snip>
>>>> Probably a majority of the classical documents we have are due to >>>> their being copied during Charlemagne's reign. He personally ordered >>>> a large-scale campaign to save them. Up to that point the Christians >>>> saw no value in pagan documents.
>>>> Did Charlemagne's copiests make mistakes? In cases where we have >>>> copies from other souces the answer is clear -- YES. But which >>>> manuscript has the error?
>>>> Sometimes it is obvious, often not. In fact in cases where we have >>>> multiple copies of medieval documents they can often be broken into >>>> families -- just as we break organisms into families based on the >>>> propagation of mutations. So one can end up with three or four >>>> families, no two of which will agree on some points.
>>>> Often the mistakes are accidental. Those are usually easy to note, >>>> often because they make no sense. Sometimes they were done on purpose >>>> in order to enhance one family's reputation or for religous reasons. >>>> The so=called references to Jesus in Josephus are thought, for several >>>> reasons, to be late interpolations into the text.
>>> I thought that the Testimonium Flavianum, the section that now says >>>"Jesus was The Christ", is generally acknowledged to be a later >>>Christian embellishment of a genuine mention of Jesus. I have never >>>heard that the other mention of Jesus, in the account of the death of >>>James, is an interpolation. OK, maybe I've heard that from some extreme >>>Jesus-myther, but never from any source that I could regard as >>>impartial. Are you sure you're describing a consensus? Can you point me >>>to a source?
>>>> History can be as much fun as evolutionary biology, and often for the >>>> same reasons. The unearthing of an ancient manuscript can shake >>>> things up. The Dead Sea scrolls are but one example.
>> The problem with the death of James is primarily that of the first >> section. Given that the first section is a forgery, or, more likely, >> contains forged elements, why should they be the only forged elements?
>> The words in dispute in the second selection are the last part of "the >> brother of Jesus, who was called Christ". The argument is simple. Why >> would Josephus call this Jesus the "annointed one" which is the primary >> meaning of "Christ", without explanation or further reference? This is >> serious for a major Roman supporter such as Josephus. Nowhere does he >> explain the title "Christ".
>> Even the first part is in dispute because Jesus, though a popular Jewish >> name (Yeshua or Joshua) is nowhere explained. James is, but only in >> passing.
>> Put more simply the entire passage is about Ananus. If an anointed one >> is to be part of this, it needs explaination.
>> Actually, if the entire disputed passage is replaced by "a man" it reads >> just fine.
>> "...he assembled the sanhedrin of judges, and brought before them >> a man,whose name was James, and some others; and when he had formed >> an accusation against them as breakers of the law, he delivered them >> to be stoned..."
>> The passage as given makes the secondary subject, James, a tertiary >> subject by subjugating his to an otherwise unexplained Jesus, who was >> called Christ. Surely this Christ calls out for more explication, but >> it is not forthcoming. > Origen mentions the James section twice; the citations are given at >(URL is one line) >http://christiancadre.blogspot.com/2007/07/ >origen-james-brother-of-jesus-and.html >Commentary on Matthew 10.17 : >"...Flavius Josephus, who wrote the 'Antiquities of the Jews' in >twenty books, when wishing to exhibit the cause why the people >suffered so great misfortunes that even the temple was razed >to the ground, said, that these things happened to them in >accordance with the wrath of God in consequence of the things >which they had dared to do against >James the brother of Jesus who is called Christ." >Contra Celsum 1.47 : >"... says nevertheless-being, although against his will, not far >from the truth-that these disasters happened to the Jews as a >punishment for the death of >James the Just, who was a brother of Jesus called Christ." > "Jesus <who is> called Christ" looks to me like an indirect quotation >of Josephus' language, rather than Origen's own description of Jesus. > The passage is about the crimes of Ananus. I don't see why "called >Christ" in this context calls for a digression into the story of >Jesus. If Wells and Doherty are the only people advancing this >argument, it doesn't deserve to be called a consensus of scholarship >on the question.
It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I think, serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
The Origen quotes are, as you say, serious. However, the passage might have been interpolated earlier.
I am not claiming that the issue of forgery is settled. I just think it is less certain that sometimes claimed. -- --- Paul J. Gans
On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans
<g...@panix.com> wrote: >It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I >think, serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
I believe British monarchs are annointed.
-- ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:10:10 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans
<g...@panix.com> wrote: >Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote: >>But up until the Reformation such Bibles were either quashed or >>restricted to churh use.
>To some extent. However, don't discount the number of students >who went through church schools and who would have had an >opportunity to read the Bible.
Through much of the history of the Roman Catholic Church laymen didn't read the bible; it was read to them by someone like a priest. For one thing, they were always manuscripts, the printing press not having reached Europe yet, and a church might be lucky to even have more than one.
-- ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote: > John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote:
<snip. We're talking about Josephus mentioning James and calling him "the brother of Jesus who was called Christ".>
>> The passage is about the crimes of Ananus. I don't see why "called >>Christ" in this context calls for a digression into the story of Jesus. >>If Wells and Doherty are the only people advancing this argument, it >>doesn't deserve to be called a consensus of scholarship on the question.
> It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I think, > serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
<snip>
Nero was illuminating the gardens of Rome with burning Christians in 68 CE. Josephus wrote the "Antiquities" in Rome in the early 90s CE. It doesn't stretch my credulity at all to believe that "Jesus called Christ" was someone his readers had already heard of.
On Nov 10, 5:32 pm, Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote:
> On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans
> <g...@panix.com> wrote: > >It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I > >think, serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
> I believe British monarchs are annointed.
> -- > ************* DAVE HATUNEN (hatu...@cox.net) ************* > * Tucson Arizona, out where the cacti grow * > * My typos & mispellings are intentional copyright traps *
In article <4cqjf5l29eqjs4juh8k2qlpoa0smd6d...@4ax.com>,
Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote: > On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans > <g...@panix.com> wrote:
> >It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I > >think, serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
> I believe British monarchs are annointed.
All the kings of the Hebrews were ceremoniously anointed. The post you responded to has to be satire, or perhaps by someone with no familiarity with the Bible.
-- A computer without Microsoft is like a chocolate cake without mustard.
On Wed, 11 Nov 2009 09:09:39 -0500, Walter Bushell wrote: > In article <4cqjf5l29eqjs4juh8k2qlpoa0smd6d...@4ax.com>, > Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote:
>> On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans <g...@panix.com> >> wrote:
>> >It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I think, >> >serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
>> I believe British monarchs are annointed.
> All the kings of the Hebrews were ceremoniously anointed. The post you > responded to has to be satire, or perhaps by someone with no familiarity > with the Bible.
I can think of yet another explanation. The context of the statement is a discussion of the phrase "the brother of Jesus called Anointed, a man named James" in Josephus' "Antiquities of the Jews". At issue is whether Josephus actually wrote "the brother of Jesus called Anointed", or whether that phrase was added later by a Christian copyist. Paul is saying, at least for the sake of argument, that "Jesus called Anointed" would have brought Josephus' readers up short, and Josephus would have added some explanation of the title, because nobody else in Josephus' history of the Jews was ever called "The Anointed".
You do know we're talking about Paul Gans here? "Someone with no familiarity with the Bible" is not my impression of Paul Gans. But perhaps you intended satire.
<jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: > On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000, Paul J Gans wrote:
> > John McKendry <jlastn...@comcast.dot.net> wrote: > <snip. We're talking about Josephus mentioning James and calling > him "the brother of Jesus who was called Christ".>
> >> The passage is about the crimes of Ananus. I don't see why "called > >>Christ" in this context calls for a digression into the story of Jesus. > >>If Wells and Doherty are the only people advancing this argument, it > >>doesn't deserve to be called a consensus of scholarship on the question.
> > It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I think, > > serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed. > <snip>
> Nero was illuminating the gardens of Rome with burning Christians in > 68 CE.
No evidence.
> Josephus wrote the "Antiquities" in Rome in the early 90s CE. > It doesn't stretch my credulity at all to believe that "Jesus called > Christ" was someone his readers had already heard of.
Unlikely, since Jesus as a "christ" was still being created at the time.
-- http://desertphile.org Desertphile's Desert Soliloquy. WARNING: view with plenty of water "Why aren't resurrections from the dead noteworthy?" -- Jim Rutz
> On Wed, 11 Nov 2009 09:09:39 -0500, Walter Bushell wrote:
> > In article <4cqjf5l29eqjs4juh8k2qlpoa0smd6d...@4ax.com>, > > Hatunen <hatu...@cox.net> wrote:
> >> On Tue, 10 Nov 2009 04:20:43 +0000 (UTC), Paul J Gans <g...@panix.com> > >> wrote:
> >> >It is a minority opinion. The problem of annointing is, I think, > >> >serious. I know of no other who was ever annointed.
> >> I believe British monarchs are annointed.
> > All the kings of the Hebrews were ceremoniously anointed. The post you > > responded to has to be satire, or perhaps by someone with no familiarity > > with the Bible.
> I can think of yet another explanation. The context of the statement is > a discussion of the phrase "the brother of Jesus called Anointed, a man > named James" in Josephus' "Antiquities of the Jews". At issue is > whether Josephus actually wrote "the brother of Jesus called Anointed", > or whether that phrase was added later by a Christian copyist. Paul > is saying, at least for the sake of argument, that "Jesus called > Anointed" would have brought Josephus' readers up short, and > Josephus would have added some explanation of the title, because > nobody else in Josephus' history of the Jews was ever called "The > Anointed".
> You do know we're talking about Paul Gans here? "Someone with no > familiarity with the Bible" is not my impression of Paul Gans. > But perhaps you intended satire.
> John
Or maybe "annointed" means something different from "anointed".
-- A computer without Microsoft is like a chocolate cake without mustard.