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metaweta  
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 More options 26 Oct, 21:22
Newsgroups: sci.physics.research
From: metaweta <metaw...@gmail.com>
Date: Mon, 26 Oct 2009 22:22:17 +0100 (CET)
Local: Mon 26 Oct 2009 21:22
Subject: Path integral question
In A. Zee's excellent QFT in a nutshell, he starts off by describing
the path integral formulation of quantum mechanics.  When he gets to
the part where it's time to calculate
    <q_{j+1}| exp(-i H \delta t) |q_j>
he uses the free Hamiltonian H=p^2/2m and then sticks in an integral
over momentum so the time evolution operator is acting on
eigenvectors.  This lets him pull out a scalar to the left.  He does
the integral and with some appropriate definitions, gets for the
probability amplitude at time T
    \int Dq exp( i \int_0^T dt 1/2 m (dq(t)/dt)^2 ).
He then leaves it as an exercise to show that had we used an arbitrary
Hamiltonian H=p^2/2m + V(x), that we would have had the Lagrangian in
the exponent there:
    \int Dq exp( i \int_0^T dt [1/2 m (dq(t)/dt)^2 - V(q(t))] ).
Now momentum doesn't commute with energy, so I can't just follow the
same process.  What do I do next?

========== Moderator's note =======================================

Have a look at

http://theorie.physik.uni-giessen.de/~hees/publ/lect.pdf


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Igor Khavkine  
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 More options 27 Oct, 13:03
Newsgroups: sci.physics.research
From: Igor Khavkine <igor...@gmail.com>
Date: Tue, 27 Oct 2009 14:03:50 +0100 (CET)
Local: Tues 27 Oct 2009 13:03
Subject: Re: Path integral question
On Oct 26, 10:22 pm, metaweta <metaw...@gmail.com> wrote:

Hendrik's notes contain a great introduction to path integrals
including the answer to your question. However, for simplicity, I'll
summarize the answer below.

Replace the first expectation value you wrote above by

    <q_{j+1}| exp(-i H \delta t) |p_j><p_j|q_j>,

where I've inserted a resolution of identity in the momentum basis |
p_j> (omitting the integration over p_j). As you wrote, you are
already familiar with this step. If H were a function of p alone, then
acting on |p_j> on the right its dependence on p would be replaced by
p_j. For more general Hamiltonians, you have to notice that the same
trick works whenever H can be written as a sum of terms that look like
A(q)B(p), where A and B are arbitrary functions of the operators q and
p. Then, the presence of <q_{j+1}| on the left can be taken advantage
of as well,

    <q_{j+1}| A(q)B(p) |p_j> = A(q_{j+1})B(p_j) <q_{j+1}|p_j> .

Both H=p^2/2m and H=p^2/2m-V(q) are of this form, since p^2 = p^2 * 1
and V(q) = 1 * V(q). From here, you can follow the same steps as for
the free particle Hamiltonian to get to the Lagrangian form of the
path integral.

Hope this helps.

Igor


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