Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@yahoo.de> writes: > * Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote:
>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would >> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the >> right form.
> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I > doubt he can supply the usual form.
Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
-- Evan Kirshenbaum +------------------------------------ HP Laboratories |It's like grasping the difference 1501 Page Mill Road, 1U, MS 1141 |between what one usually considers Palo Alto, CA 94304 |a 'difficult' problem, and what |*is* a difficult problem. The day kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com |one understands *why* counting all (650)857-7572 |the molecules in the Universe isn't |difficult...there's the leap. http://www.kirshenbaum.net/ | Tina Marie Holmboe
> >> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would > >> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the > >> right form.
> > "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I > > doubt he can supply the usual form.
> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular > verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", > "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common > among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
I think "brung" is more common than "brang" -- because of that principle I mentioned that pasts are reanalyzed as participles rather than preterites, as in "I played the piano" : "I rung the bell."
>>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would >>> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the >>> right form.
>> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I >> doubt he can supply the usual form.
They are almost 8, by the way.
> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular > verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", > "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common > among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
Indeed the interesting aspect of my observation seems to be that some unconventional forms might be reinforced by children among themselves. I only noticed that about vocabulary before.
Another candidate for that might be "mines" ("you bring yours and I bring mines") - I thought that was a Germanism until I heard it from his EFL friend.
This is of course just an informal impression, I would like to see more solid data about that.
-- da kamen abermals in das Elsas uber die Zaberer steig ein volck, die nante man auch die Engelländer und gugeler B. HERTZOG
Peter T. Daniels wrote: > On Oct 29, 1:38 pm, Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote: >> Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@yahoo.de> writes: >>> * Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote:
>>>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would >>>> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the >>>> right form.
>>> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I >>> doubt he can supply the usual form.
>> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular >> verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", >> "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common >> among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
> I think "brung" is more common than "brang" -- because of that > principle I mentioned that pasts are reanalyzed as participles rather > than preterites, as in "I played the piano" : "I rung the bell."
Are there dialects that have bring/brung/brung, in just this verb, as opposed to the widespread tendency to replace every strong past with the participle form when it's different? I know that there are many dialects that have bring/brang/brung, both in the USA and Britain, though I don't know offhand which ones they are, and of course don't know whether one of them is spoken where Oliver's child and his friends might have picked it up (as opposed to it being a personal innovation by them).
> Peter T. Daniels wrote: > > On Oct 29, 1:38 pm, Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote: > >> Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@yahoo.de> writes: > >>> * Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote:
> >>>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would > >>>> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the > >>>> right form.
> >>> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I > >>> doubt he can supply the usual form.
> >> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular > >> verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", > >> "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common > >> among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
> > I think "brung" is more common than "brang" -- because of that > > principle I mentioned that pasts are reanalyzed as participles rather > > than preterites, as in "I played the piano" : "I rung the bell."
> Are there dialects that have bring/brung/brung, in just this verb, as
> opposed to the widespread tendency to replace every strong past with the > participle form when it's different? I know that there are many > dialects that have bring/brang/brung, both in the USA and Britain, > though I don't know offhand which ones they are, and of course don't > know whether one of them is spoken where Oliver's child and his friends > might have picked it up (as opposed to it being a personal innovation by > them).
> Peter T. Daniels wrote: >> On Oct 29, 1:38 pm, Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote: >>> Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@yahoo.de> writes: >>>> * Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote:
>>>>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would >>>>> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the >>>>> right form.
>>>> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I >>>> doubt he can supply the usual form.
>>> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular >>> verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", >>> "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common >>> among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
>> I think "brung" is more common than "brang" -- because of that >> principle I mentioned that pasts are reanalyzed as participles rather >> than preterites, as in "I played the piano" : "I rung the bell."
> Are there dialects that have bring/brung/brung, in just this verb, as > opposed to the widespread tendency to replace every strong past with the > participle form when it's different? I know that there are many > dialects that have bring/brang/brung, both in the USA and Britain, > though I don't know offhand which ones they are, and of course don't > know whether one of them is spoken where Oliver's child and his friends > might have picked it up (as opposed to it being a personal innovation by > them).
Interesting; there are west-middle-German dialects that have bringen - gebrungen (no past tense in that area) instead of bringen - gebracht.
On Thu, 29 Oct 2009 14:19:42 +0000, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote:
>On 2009-10-28, tony cooper wrote:
>> There was a time when Catholic women were expected to cover their >> heads when attending Mass. It was not uncommon to see a woman who had >> forgotten her hat or scarf with a Kleenex atop her head. It was a >> particularly amusing sight when beehive hairdos were popular.
>I may have mentioned this previously in AUE, but I know who went to a >Roman Catholic school, was very good in maths, and occasionally >muddled words; she once said her mother wore a "mantissa" to mass.
Carrying a pocket calculator should be enough, today. --
Regards,
Chuck Riggs, An American who lives near Dublin, Ireland and usually spells in BrE
>>> Children _understand_ "irregular" inflections before they can >>> _produce_ them.
>> ISTR reading that children understand lots of linguistic phenomena >> before they can produce them, including phonemes that they can't >> articulate yet. I came across examples (in a book by David Crystal, I >> think, but I'm not certain) in which a small child mispronounces a >> word, then gets annoyed when the parent repeats the mispronunciation >> and says "No, I said ____!" with the same mispronunciation.
>"My fiss".
Doesn't he also give the "wok/rock" example - child can't pronounce r but when parent talks about finding a 'wok' in the garden, child is cross because while he can't pronounce the difference, he can still hear it.
<gramma...@verizon.net> wrote: >On Oct 26, 7:10 pm, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote: >> In article >> <be4901d8-f8c9-4339-8a02-6413a40ef...@u16g2000pru.googlegroups.com>, >> "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
>> > No, it doesn't, because no child would or could say "When did your >> > brother hitted you?", because any child who can make do-support >> > questions knows that do-support operates on the infinitive, not on the >> > preterite.
>> Not completely true. With irregular verbs, (and even some regulars) >> these kinds of errors definitely arise. Here are some real examples >> from the Brown corpus (Adam, Age (in the cited examples) 3;4 - 3;10, Eve >> 2;2, Sarah 4;5-5;0)
>> Of course I agree with the general sentiment that the child will figure >> it out her own. Somehow, given the disappearance of the OP, I wonder if >> this is simply a troll.
>> Alan
>> Yes/No questions:
>> *** File "adam29.cha": line 1261. Keyword: did >> *CHI: oh (.) did I caught it ?
>> *** File "adam30.cha": line 2207. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did you broke that part ?
>> *** File "adam31.cha": line 3423. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did the milk broke ?
>> *** File "adam31.cha": line 3810. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did you made a mistake ?
>> And with wh-questions:
>> *** File "adam36.cha": line 4637. Keyword: did >> *CHI: what movie did I saw ?
>> *** File "eve17.cha": line 4506. Keywords: did, did >> *CHI: what did you doed [: did] [* +ed] ?
>> *** File "sarah111.cha": line 110. Keyword: did >> *CHI: how did I untangled it ?
>> *** File "sarah127.cha": line 1449. Keyword: did >> *CHI: how did you caught him ?
>> And some even wackier ones:
>> *** File "adam34.cha": line 2001. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did was it be a comb ?
>> *** File "adam39.cha": line 1404. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did there be some ?
>> *** File "adam39.cha": line 1407. Keyword: did >> *CHI: did it be there ?-
> Peter T. Daniels wrote: >> On Oct 29, 1:38 pm, Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote: >>> Oliver Cromm <lispamat...@yahoo.de> writes: >>>> * Evan Kirshenbaum <kirshenb...@hpl.hp.com> wrote:
>>>>> And if brought an error to his attention ("Bringed?") he would >>>>> immediately see that it needed correcting and often supply the >>>>> right form.
>>>> "Bringed"? My son and his best friend always say "brang". And I >>>> doubt he can supply the usual form.
>>> Josh tended (and still does occasionally) to overregularize irregular >>> verbs rather than pick the wrong irregular form. So "bringed", >>> "catched", "buyed", and the like. "Brang" never seemed to be common >>> among his cohort, either when he was little or now.
>> I think "brung" is more common than "brang" -- because of that >> principle I mentioned that pasts are reanalyzed as participles rather >> than preterites, as in "I played the piano" : "I rung the bell."
> Are there dialects that have bring/brung/brung, in just this verb, as > opposed to the widespread tendency to replace every strong past with the > participle form when it's different? I know that there are many > dialects that have bring/brang/brung, both in the USA and Britain, > though I don't know offhand which ones they are, and of course don't > know whether one of them is spoken where Oliver's child and his friends > might have picked it up (as opposed to it being a personal innovation by > them).
That's a possibility of course. I haven't noticed it in adults around here (Montreal, Quebec), but then, I don't have contact with that many native speakers of English. Especially my son's friend, being a native speaker himself, will have a broader exposure to dialects.
-- es sol kain leitgeb eim paurnknecht nicht mer parigen dann sein gurtelgewant, ... swert und gugel wert ist österr. weist.
> On Oct 29, 10:15 am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote: >> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote: >> > Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? It's >> > normal in AAVE.
>> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues >> like that in child language acquisition?
> Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language > acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of > articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of them. Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started this thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it") --- I guess you could say that something like "ease of syntactic generation" is driving that?
Of course, such arguments provide ammunitition to those who argue that dropping phonemes and making these grammatical errors (prescriptively speaking) result from "laziness".
-- History teaches that grave threats to liberty often come in times of urgency, when constitutional rights seem too extravagant to endure. (Thurgood Marshall)
> > On Oct 29, 10:15 am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote: > >> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote: > >> > Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? It's > >> > normal in AAVE.
> >> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues > >> like that in child language acquisition?
> > Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language > > acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of > > articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
> I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of them. > Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started this > thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it") --- I guess you > could say that something like "ease of syntactic generation" is > driving that?
Analogy?
> Of course, such arguments provide ammunitition to those who argue that > dropping phonemes and making these grammatical errors (prescriptively > speaking) result from "laziness".
A condition that affects every speaker in the world, no matter their industriousness. It is at every step confronted by intelligibility.
> > On Oct 29, 10:15 am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote: > >> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> >> > Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? It's > >> > normal in AAVE.
> >> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues > >> like that in child language acquisition?
> > Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language > > acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of > > articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
> I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of them. > Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started this > thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it")
True, articulation has nothing to do with this.
> --- I guess you > could say that something like "ease of syntactic generation" is > driving that?
Or some sort of simplicity of the case marking rule. Here's one (for English):
(i) NP subjects of tensed clauses get marked with Nominative case. (ii) NP 'subjects'[1] of noun phrases get marked with Genitive case. (iii) all other NPs get marked with Accusative case.
In the situation of "Me and John left" or "John and me left" "me and John"/"John and me" is the subject, NOT just "me", so rule (iii) applies. Evidence for this supposedly heretical claim: "John and I met" ≠ John met and I met.
The rule also predicts Acc for "me and John's book" (cf. ?my and John's book/?John's and my book). Although in this case the ordering matters: "*John and me's book".
It also predicts that the default case form in English is Acc, as in:
Me, I don't like that. (*I, I don't like that) Who is it? It's me. (*It's I) John is bigger than me (*John is bigger than I)
The prescriptive rule here is more complex, since it requires Nominative case on NP subjects of tensed clauses and NPs contained in coordinated NP subjects of tensed clauses. This of course gets overgeneralized by many speakers to "Nom on all coordinated NPs", yielding the "between you and I", and "John and I's" (google "John and I's wedding" for plenty of real examples of this.) Nominative case is also hypercorrected in the "It's I" and "bigger than I" cases as well.
Note:
[1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army destroyed the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was destroyed by the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in "the army's destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of the noun phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the city" is the subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more to your liking, such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in debating this point.
On Nov 5, 11:22 am, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote:
> [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army destroyed > the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was destroyed by > the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in "the army's > destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of the noun > phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the city" is the > subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more to your liking, > such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in debating this point.
Noun phrases don't have subjects. If they did, they'd be verb phrases.
In article <16e5c591-e126-45d3-99fb-35123a811...@m35g2000vbi.googlegroups.com>, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On Nov 5, 11:22 am, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote:
> > [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army destroyed > > the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was destroyed by > > the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in "the army's > > destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of the noun > > phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the city" is the > > subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more to your liking, > > such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in debating this point.
> Noun phrases don't have subjects. If they did, they'd be verb phrases.
What part of "I'm not interested in debating this point" did you not understand?
> In article > <16e5c591-e126-45d3-99fb-35123a811...@m35g2000vbi.googlegroups.com>, > "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
> > On Nov 5, 11:22 am, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote:
> > > [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army destroyed > > > the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was destroyed by > > > the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in "the army's > > > destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of the noun > > > phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the city" is the > > > subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more to your liking, > > > such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in debating this point.
> > Noun phrases don't have subjects. If they did, they'd be verb phrases.
> What part of "I'm not interested in debating this point" did you not > understand?
(a) Your apparent sole purpose in your occasional postings to sci.lang is to use technical terms in ways that are not known to other linguists.
(b) I believe that what you did is called a "pseudo-sorites" -- you state that you are not interested in discussing some statement that you set forth in considerable detail. Along the lines of Smith saying "I am not going to claim that my opponent Jones is an alcoholic! I am not going to state that Jones is seen to come staggering out of watering holes at closing time nearly every night!"
(c) Then why did you respond? _Other_ people may be interested in setting forth criteria for various linguistic categories, even if you're not interested in defending your unorthodox uses of them.
> On Nov 5, 12:40 pm, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote: > > In article > > <16e5c591-e126-45d3-99fb-35123a811...@m35g2000vbi.googlegroups.com>, > > "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
> > > On Nov 5, 11:22 am, Alan Munn <am...@msu.edu> wrote:
> > > > [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army destroyed > > > > the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was destroyed by > > > > the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in "the army's > > > > destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of the noun > > > > phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the city" is the > > > > subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more to your liking, > > > > such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in debating this point.
> > > Noun phrases don't have subjects. If they did, they'd be verb phrases.
> > What part of "I'm not interested in debating this point" did you not > > understand?
> (a) Your apparent sole purpose in your occasional postings to sci.lang > is to use technical terms in ways that are not known to other > linguists.
> (b) I believe that what you did is called a "pseudo-sorites" -- you > state that you are not interested in discussing some statement that > you set forth in considerable detail. Along the lines of Smith saying > "I am not going to claim that my opponent Jones is an alcoholic! I am > not going to state that Jones is seen to come staggering out of > watering holes at closing time nearly every night!"
Nothing in this particular post related to the use of technical terms, but how case works in English.
I don't like to use the term "Possessor", since it is relatively inaccurate: many genitive NP are certainly not semantically possessors; calling it genitive is circular, and referring to some structural position such as "Specifier of DP" or some such will lose people in another way. The term subject as it pertains to NPs has been in use in much the syntactic literature since at least the early 70's (It is used in Chomsky's 1973 "Conditions on Transformations" in formulating the Specified Subject Condition. It's hardly a term "not known to other linguists". It was, however, likely to be relatively unknown to this audience, hence the explanation of my use.
I put in the note so that people could feel free to use whatever term they liked, since it wasn't necessary to the argument.
> (c) Then why did you respond? _Other_ people may be interested in > setting forth criteria for various linguistic categories, even if > you're not interested in defending your unorthodox uses of them.
To which? The original post, I responded to about the idea that rule simplicity could be a factor in language change. This had nothing to do with linguistic categories, per se. Furthermore, when there was a discussion of my methods for positing categories, you were noticeably silent. To your post? Frankly, I have no idea, since I should have known better.
> In article <ng7bs6xmgf....@news.ducksburg.com>, > Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote:
>> On 2009-10-29, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
>>> On Oct 29, 10:15Â am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote:
>>>> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
>>>>> Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? >>>>> It's normal in AAVE.
>>>> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues >>>> like that in child language acquisition?
>>> Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language >>> acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of >>> articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
>> I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of >> them. Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started >> this thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it")
> True, articulation has nothing to do with this.
>> --- I guess you could say that something like "ease of syntactic >> generation" is driving that?
> Or some sort of simplicity of the case marking rule. Here's one (for > English):
> (i) NP subjects of tensed clauses get marked with Nominative case. > (ii) NP 'subjects'[1] of noun phrases get marked with Genitive case. > (iii) all other NPs get marked with Accusative case.
> In the situation of "Me and John left" or "John and me left" "me and > John"/"John and me" is the subject, NOT just "me", so rule (iii) > applies. Evidence for this supposedly heretical claim: "John and I > met" ≠John met and I met.
> The rule also predicts Acc for "me and John's book" (cf. ?my and > John's book/?John's and my book). Although in this case the ordering > matters: "*John and me's book".
> It also predicts that the default case form in English is Acc, as in:
> Me, I don't like that. (*I, I don't like that) > Who is it? It's me. (*It's I) > John is bigger than me (*John is bigger than I)
> The prescriptive rule here is more complex, since it requires > Nominative case on NP subjects of tensed clauses and NPs contained in > coordinated NP subjects of tensed clauses. This of course gets > overgeneralized by many speakers to "Nom on all coordinated NPs", > yielding the "between you and I", and "John and I's" (google "John > and I's wedding" for plenty of real examples of this.) Nominative > case is also hypercorrected in the "It's I" and "bigger than I" cases > as well.
It would be interesting if your analysis could predict or explain a hierarchy of hypercorrection. In what constructions are hypercorrect forms most likely to occur and why?
> Note:
> [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army > destroyed the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was > destroyed by the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in > "the army's destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of > the noun phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the > city" is the subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more > to your liking, such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in > debating this point.
You're not? I'll have a go anyway.
I can see it making sense at some level of analysis -- an underlying sentence behind the noun phrase or something -- but I would think that in cases where the scope is on the whole sentence rather than the phrase alone this view may lead to confusion.
What do you make of examples like "the army('s) (me/my) destroying the city"/"the city('s) (me/my) (being) destroyed by the army"?
But this reminds me of an old thought of mine (and I may well have aired it before and forgotten what came out of it (and it's probably a banality to linguists anyway)): The details of the grammar of any natural language can be analysed in different mutually exclusive ways, none of which fits perfectly. This lack of perfection gives a flexibility of expression, interpretation and reinterpretation that is essential for language to work.
> On Nov 5, 10:27 am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote: >> On 2009-10-29, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
>> > On Oct 29, 10:15 am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote: >> >> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote: >> >> > Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? It's >> >> > normal in AAVE.
>> >> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues >> >> like that in child language acquisition?
>> > Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language >> > acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of >> > articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
>> I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of them. >> Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started this >> thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it") --- I guess you >> could say that something like "ease of syntactic generation" is >> driving that?
> Analogy?
Sure. (I was thinking of something like "easier to remember/generate", in parallel with "easier to pronounce".)
-- No right of private conversation was enumerated in the Constitution. I don't suppose it occurred to anyone at the time that it could be prevented. [Whitfield Diffie]
> > In article <ng7bs6xmgf....@news.ducksburg.com>, > > Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote:
> >> On 2009-10-29, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> >>> On Oct 29, 10:15Â am, Adam Funk <a24...@ducksburg.com> wrote:
> >>>> On 2009-10-28, Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> >>>>> Or that dropping a final stop isn't just a French bizarrerie? > >>>>> It's normal in AAVE.
> >>>> Are these omissions over time considered to be derived from issues > >>>> like that in child language acquisition?
> >>> Well, "over time" _every_ change has something to do with language > >>> acquisition: it's simply the constant battle between ease of > >>> articulation and difficulty of comprehension.
> >> I can see that for many types of language change, but not all of > >> them. Ease of *articulation* doesn't explain the issue that started > >> this thread ("me and Bob did it" vs "Bob and I did it")
> > True, articulation has nothing to do with this.
> >> --- I guess you could say that something like "ease of syntactic > >> generation" is driving that?
> > Or some sort of simplicity of the case marking rule. Here's one (for > > English):
> > (i) NP subjects of tensed clauses get marked with Nominative case. > > (ii) NP 'subjects'[1] of noun phrases get marked with Genitive case. > > (iii) all other NPs get marked with Accusative case.
> > In the situation of "Me and John left" or "John and me left" "me and > > John"/"John and me" is the subject, NOT just "me", so rule (iii) > > applies. Evidence for this supposedly heretical claim: "John and I > > met" ≠John met and I met.
> > The rule also predicts Acc for "me and John's book" (cf. ?my and > > John's book/?John's and my book). Although in this case the ordering > > matters: "*John and me's book".
> > It also predicts that the default case form in English is Acc, as in:
> > Me, I don't like that. (*I, I don't like that) > > Who is it? It's me. (*It's I) > > John is bigger than me (*John is bigger than I)
> > The prescriptive rule here is more complex, since it requires > > Nominative case on NP subjects of tensed clauses and NPs contained in > > coordinated NP subjects of tensed clauses. This of course gets > > overgeneralized by many speakers to "Nom on all coordinated NPs", > > yielding the "between you and I", and "John and I's" (google "John > > and I's wedding" for plenty of real examples of this.) Nominative > > case is also hypercorrected in the "It's I" and "bigger than I" cases > > as well.
> It would be interesting if your analysis could predict or explain a > hierarchy of hypercorrection. In what constructions are hypercorrect > forms most likely to occur and why?
> > Note:
> > [1] I'm using subject here purely syntactically: in "The army > > destroyed the city", "the army" is the subject and in "The city was > > destroyed by the army", "the city" is the subject. By analogy, in > > "the army's destruction of the city", "the army" is the 'subject' of > > the noun phrase, and in "the city's destruction by the army", "the > > city" is the subject. Feel free to replace this term with one more > > to your liking, such as "Possessor", as I'm not interested in > > debating this point.
> You're not? I'll have a go anyway.
> I can see it making sense at some level of analysis -- an underlying > sentence behind the noun phrase or something -- but I would think that > in cases where the scope is on the whole sentence rather than the phrase > alone this view may lead to confusion.
> What do you make of examples like "the army('s) (me/my) destroying the > city"/"the city('s) (me/my) (being) destroyed by the army"?
> But this reminds me of an old thought of mine (and I may well have aired > it before and forgotten what came out of it (and it's probably a > banality to linguists anyway)): The details of the grammar of any > natural language can be analysed in different mutually exclusive ways, > none of which fits perfectly. This lack of perfection gives a > flexibility of expression, interpretation and reinterpretation that is > essential for language to work.
> -- > Trond Engen
You could easily argue that every speaker of a language makes a different analysis of what she heard and therefore each speaker extends the language examples they have heard in different ways. That is, everybody speaks their own idiolect.
To argue that a language has a unique analysis or even a small number of alternative analyses might be called the Chomskian fallacy.
On Nov 5, 8:06 pm, DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> wrote:
> You could easily argue that every speaker of a language makes a > different analysis of what she heard and therefore each speaker > extends the language examples they have heard in different ways. That > is, everybody speaks their own idiolect.
I thought you were an implacable enemy of Robert A. Hall, Jr., whose position that was.
On Nov 5, 7:51 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote:
> On Nov 5, 8:06 pm, DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > You could easily argue that every speaker of a language makes a > > different analysis of what she heard and therefore each speaker > > extends the language examples they have heard in different ways. That > > is, everybody speaks their own idiolect.
> I thought you were an implacable enemy of Robert A. Hall, Jr., whose > position that was.
You have me confused with somebody else. I have nothing but good feelings for Hall. He gave my etymology for "pidgin" a good word - which it needs. I still think it's right.
DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> writes: > On Nov 5, 7:51 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote: >> On Nov 5, 8:06 pm, DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> > You could easily argue that every speaker of a language makes a >> > different analysis of what she heard and therefore each speaker >> > extends the language examples they have heard in different ways. That >> > is, everybody speaks their own idiolect.
>> I thought you were an implacable enemy of Robert A. Hall, Jr., whose >> position that was.
> You have me confused with somebody else. I have nothing but good > feelings for Hall. He gave my etymology for "pidgin" a good word - > which it needs. I still think it's right.
For them of us what aren't keeping up with the hate list, what is your etymology? I've never been particularly convinced by "business". -- Online waterways route planner: http://canalplan.org.uk development version: http://canalplan.eu
> DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> writes: > > On Nov 5, 7:51 pm, "Peter T. Daniels" <gramma...@verizon.net> wrote: > >> On Nov 5, 8:06 pm, DKleinecke <dkleine...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >> > You could easily argue that every speaker of a language makes a > >> > different analysis of what she heard and therefore each speaker > >> > extends the language examples they have heard in different ways. That > >> > is, everybody speaks their own idiolect.
> >> I thought you were an implacable enemy of Robert A. Hall, Jr., whose > >> position that was.
> > You have me confused with somebody else. I have nothing but good > > feelings for Hall. He gave my etymology for "pidgin" a good word - > > which it needs. I still think it's right.
> For them of us what aren't keeping up with the hate list, what is your > etymology? I've never been particularly convinced by "business". > -- > Online waterways route planner:http://canalplan.org.uk > development version:http://canalplan.eu
I don't know if it is available online. It was published as a Note in the IJAL.
Briefly there was an indian community at the mouth of the Oyapock River in Brazil north of the Amazon whom at least one English-speaking writer in the seventeenth century called the Pidians. This was not a tribal name and the community was a refugee settlement not a regular tribal group. The word Pidian is found in Arawack (now often called Maipuran) languages in central Guyana (not in Arawack proper) in the sense of "people". There was a tribe called the Mapidians (not-people, named doubtless by their enemies). In English Pidian and Pijin are virtually identical. The idea is that the word Pidian lived on in sailor's jargon for natives who were willing to trade. That is the sense of the word in the seventeenth century example.
Actually there is a bit of evidence not known to me then for the continued use in the eighteenth century.